Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
08.06.2025 00:23
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
What is Palantir? The secretive tech company behind Trump's data collection efforts - Mashable
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
How do military families handle communication when a service member is injured overseas?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.